REFERENCE TITLE: sentencing; concealed weapons permit; surrender

 

 

 

 

State of Arizona

House of Representatives

Fifty-fifth Legislature

First Regular Session

2021

 

 

 

HB 2764

 

Introduced by

Representative Friese

 

 

AN ACT

 

amending sections 13-701, 13-3112 and 13-3602, Arizona Revised Statutes; relating to concealed weapons permit.

 

 

(TEXT OF BILL BEGINS ON NEXT PAGE)

 


Be it enacted by the Legislature of the State of Arizona:

Section 1. Section 13-701, Arizona Revised Statutes, is amended to read:

START_STATUTE13-701. Sentence of imprisonment for felony; presentence report; aggravating and mitigating factors; consecutive terms of imprisonment; definition

A. A sentence of imprisonment for a felony shall be a definite term of years and the person sentenced, unless otherwise provided by law, shall be committed to the custody of the state department of corrections.

B. No prisoner may be transferred to the custody of the state department of corrections without a certified copy of the judgment and sentence, signed by the sentencing judge, and a copy of a recent presentence investigation report unless the court has waived preparation of the report.

C. The minimum or maximum term imposed pursuant to section 13-702, 13-703, 13-704, 13-705, 13-708, 13-710, 13-1406, 13-3212 or 13-3419 may be imposed only if one or more of the circumstances alleged to be in aggravation of the crime are found to be true by the trier of fact beyond a reasonable doubt or are admitted by the defendant, except that an alleged aggravating circumstance under subsection D, paragraph 11 of this section shall be found to be true by the court, or in mitigation of the crime are found to be true by the court, on any evidence or information introduced or submitted to the court or the trier of fact before sentencing or any evidence presented at trial, and factual findings and reasons in support of such findings are set forth on the record at the time of sentencing.

D. For the purpose of determining the sentence pursuant to subsection C of this section, the trier of fact shall determine and the court shall consider the following aggravating circumstances, except that the court shall determine an aggravating circumstance under paragraph 11 of this subsection:

1. Infliction or threatened infliction of serious physical injury, except if this circumstance is an essential element of the offense of conviction or has been utilized used to enhance the range of punishment under section 13-704.

2. Use, threatened use or possession of a deadly weapon or dangerous instrument during the commission of the crime, except if this circumstance is an essential element of the offense of conviction or has been utilized used to enhance the range of punishment under section 13-704.

3. If the offense involves the taking of or damage to property, the value of the property taken or damaged.

4. Presence of an accomplice.

5. Especially heinous, cruel or depraved manner in which the offense was committed.

6. The defendant committed the offense as consideration for the receipt, or in the expectation of the receipt, of anything of pecuniary value.

7. The defendant procured the commission of the offense by payment, or promise of payment, of anything of pecuniary value.

8. At the time of the commission of the offense, the defendant was a public servant and the offense involved conduct directly related to the defendant's office or employment.

9. The victim or, if the victim has died as a result of the conduct of the defendant, the victim's immediate family suffered physical, emotional or financial harm.

10. During the course of the commission of the offense, the death of an unborn child at any stage of its development occurred.

11. The defendant was previously convicted of a felony within the ten years immediately preceding the date of the offense.  A conviction outside the jurisdiction of this state for an offense that if committed in this state would be punishable as a felony is a felony conviction for the purposes of this paragraph.

12. The defendant was wearing body armor as defined in section 13-3116.

13. The victim of the offense is at least sixty-five years of age or is a person with a disability as defined in section 38-492, subsection B.

14. The defendant was appointed pursuant to title 14 as a fiduciary and the offense involved conduct directly related to the defendant's duties to the victim as fiduciary.

15. Evidence that the defendant committed the crime out of malice toward a victim because of the victim's identity in a group listed in section 41-1750, subsection A, paragraph 3 or because of the defendant's perception of the victim's identity in a group listed in section 41-1750, subsection A, paragraph 3.

16. The defendant was convicted of a violation of section 13-1102, section 13-1103, section 13-1104, subsection A, paragraph 3 or section 13-1204, subsection A, paragraph 1 or 2 arising from an act that was committed while driving a motor vehicle and the defendant's alcohol concentration at the time of committing the offense was 0.15 or more.  For the purposes of this paragraph, "alcohol concentration" has the same meaning prescribed in section 28-101.

17. Lying in wait for the victim or ambushing the victim during the commission of any felony.

18. The offense was committed in the presence of a child and any of the circumstances exists that are set forth in section 13-3601, subsection A.

19. The offense was committed in retaliation for a victim either reporting criminal activity or being involved in an organization, other than a law enforcement agency, that is established for the purpose of reporting or preventing criminal activity.

20. The defendant was impersonating a peace officer as defined in section 1-215.

21. The defendant was in violation of 8 United States Code section 1323, 1324, 1325, 1326 or 1328 at the time of the commission of the offense.

22. The defendant used a remote stun gun or an authorized remote stun gun in the commission of the offense.  For the purposes of this paragraph:

(a) "Authorized remote stun gun" means a remote stun gun that has all of the following:

(i) An electrical discharge that is less than one hundred thousand volts and less than nine joules of energy per pulse.

(ii) A serial or identification number on all projectiles that are discharged from the remote stun gun.

(iii) An identification and tracking system that, on deployment of remote electrodes, disperses coded material that is traceable to the purchaser through records that are kept by the manufacturer on all remote stun guns and all individual cartridges sold.

(iv) A training program that is offered by the manufacturer.

(b) "Remote stun gun" means an electronic device that emits an electrical charge and that is designed and primarily employed to incapacitate a person or animal either through contact with electrodes on the device itself or remotely through wired probes that are attached to the device or through a spark, plasma, ionization or other conductive means emitting from the device.

23. During or immediately following the commission of the offense, the defendant committed a violation of section 28-661, 28-662 or 28-663.

24. The defendant was convicted of a violation of section 13-1307 or 13-1308 or section 13-3212, subsection A, paragraph 9 or 10 and the defendant recruited, enticed or obtained the victim from a shelter that is designed to serve runaway youth, foster children, homeless persons or victims of human trafficking, domestic violence or sexual assault.

25. The defendant was convicted of a violation of section 13-1204 and there is evidence that the defendant committed the crime out of malice toward a victim because of the victim's employment as a peace officer.

26. During or immediately following the commission of the offense, the defendant used a mask or other disguise to obscure the defendant's face to avoid identification.

27. Any other factor that the state alleges is relevant to the defendant's character or background or to the nature or circumstances of the crime.

E. For the purpose of determining the sentence pursuant to subsection C of this section, the court shall consider the following mitigating circumstances:

1. The age of the defendant.

2. The defendant's capacity to appreciate the wrongfulness of the defendant's conduct or to conform the defendant's conduct to the requirements of law was significantly impaired, but not so impaired as to constitute a defense to prosecution.

3. The defendant was under unusual or substantial duress, although not to a degree that would constitute a defense to prosecution.

4. The degree of the defendant's participation in the crime was minor, although not so minor as to constitute a defense to prosecution.

5. During or immediately following the commission of the offense, the defendant complied with all duties imposed under sections 28-661, 28-662 and 28-663.

6. Any other factor that is relevant to the defendant's character or background or to the nature or circumstances of the crime and that the court finds to be mitigating.

F. If the trier of fact finds at least one aggravating circumstance, the trial court may find by a preponderance of the evidence additional aggravating circumstances. In determining what sentence to impose, the court shall take into account the amount of aggravating circumstances and whether the amount of mitigating circumstances is sufficiently substantial to justify the lesser term.  If the trier of fact finds aggravating circumstances and the court does not find any mitigating circumstances, the court shall impose an aggravated sentence.

G. The court in imposing a sentence shall consider the evidence and opinions presented by the victim or the victim's immediate family at any aggravation or mitigation proceeding or in the presentence report.

H. This section does not affect any provision of law that imposes the death penalty, that expressly provides for imprisonment for life or that authorizes or restricts the granting of probation and suspending the execution of sentence.

I. The intentional failure by the court to impose the mandatory sentences or probation conditions provided in this title is malfeasance.

J. The court in imposing a sentence shall determine if the defendant possesses a concealed weapons permit issued pursuant to section 13-3112 by accessing the department of public safety's computerized permit record system.  If the conviction makes the defendant a prohibited possessor as defined in section 13-3101 or unqualified to posses a permit pursuant to section 13-3112, The court shall require the defendant to surrender the permit at the time of sentencing. If the defendant does not surrender the permit at the time of sentencing, the court shall order the permit revoked.  If the defendant does not voluntarily surrender the permit to the department of public safety wiThin three business days after the permit is revoked, the department of public safety shall locate the defendant and seize the permit.  The court shall transfer the surrendered or seized permit to the department of public safety.

J. K. For the purposes of this section, "trier of fact" means a jury, unless the defendant and the state waive a jury in which case the trier of fact means the court.

Sec. 2. Section 13-3112, Arizona Revised Statutes, is amended to read:

START_STATUTE13-3112. Concealed weapons; qualification; application; permit to carry; civil penalty; report; applicability

A. The department of public safety shall issue a permit to carry a concealed weapon to a person who is qualified under this section. The person shall carry the permit at all times when the person is in actual possession of the concealed weapon and is required by section 4-229 or 4-244 to carry the permit.  If the person is in actual possession of the concealed weapon and is required by section 4-229 or 4-244 to carry the permit, the person shall present the permit for inspection to any law enforcement officer on request.

B. The permit of a person who is arrested or indicted for an offense that would make the person unqualified under section 13-3101, subsection A, paragraph 7 or this section shall be immediately suspended and seized.  The permit of a person who becomes unqualified on conviction of that offense shall be revoked. The permit shall be restored on presentation of documentation from the court if the permittee is found not guilty or the charges are dismissed. The permit shall be restored on presentation of documentation from the county attorney that the charges against the permittee were dropped or dismissed.

C. A permittee who carries a concealed weapon, who is required by section 4-229 or 4-244 to carry a permit and who fails to present the permit for inspection on the request of a law enforcement officer commits a violation of this subsection and is subject to a civil penalty of not more than three hundred dollars $300. The department of public safety shall be notified of all violations of this subsection and shall immediately suspend the permit. A permittee shall not be convicted of a violation of this subsection if the permittee produces to the court a legible permit that is issued to the permittee and that was valid at the time the permittee failed to present the permit for inspection.

D. A law enforcement officer shall not confiscate or forfeit a weapon that is otherwise lawfully possessed by a permittee whose permit is suspended pursuant to subsection C of this section, except that a law enforcement officer may take temporary custody of a firearm during an investigatory stop of the permittee.

E. The department of public safety shall issue a permit to an applicant who meets all of the following conditions:

1. Is a resident of this state or a United States citizen.

2. Is twenty-one years of age or older or is at least nineteen years of age and provides evidence of current military service or proof of honorable discharge or general discharge under honorable conditions from the United States armed forces, the United States armed forces reserve or a state national guard.

3. Is not under indictment for and has not been convicted in any jurisdiction of a felony unless that conviction has been expunged, set aside or vacated or the applicant's rights have been restored and the applicant is currently not a prohibited possessor under state or federal law.

4. Does not suffer from mental illness and has not been adjudicated mentally incompetent or committed to a mental institution.

5. Is not unlawfully present in the United States.

6. Has ever demonstrated competence with a firearm as prescribed by subsection N of this section and provides adequate documentation that the person has satisfactorily completed a training program or demonstrated competence with a firearm in any state or political subdivision in the United States.  For the purposes of this paragraph, "adequate documentation" means:

(a) A current or expired permit issued by the department of public safety pursuant to this section.

(b) An original or copy of a certificate, card or document that shows the applicant has ever completed any course or class prescribed by subsection N of this section or an affidavit from the instructor, school, club or organization that conducted or taught the course or class attesting to the applicant's completion of the course or class.

(c) An original or a copy of a United States department of defense form 214 (DD-214) indicating an honorable discharge or general discharge under honorable conditions, a certificate of completion of basic training or any other document demonstrating proof of the applicant's current or former service in the United States armed forces as prescribed by subsection N, paragraph 5 of this section.

(d) An original or a copy of a concealed weapon, firearm or handgun permit or a license as prescribed by subsection N, paragraph 6 of this section.

F. The application shall be completed on a form prescribed by the department of public safety. The form shall not require the applicant to disclose the type of firearm for which a permit is sought.  The applicant shall attest under penalty of perjury that all of the statements made by the applicant are true, that the applicant has been furnished a copy of this chapter and chapter 4 of this title and that the applicant is knowledgeable about the provisions contained in those chapters. The applicant shall submit the application to the department with any documentation prescribed by subsection E of this section, two sets of fingerprints and a reasonable fee determined by the director of the department.

G. On receipt of a concealed weapon permit application, the department of public safety shall conduct a check of the applicant's criminal history record pursuant to section 41-1750. The department of public safety may exchange fingerprint card information with the federal bureau of investigation for federal criminal history record checks.

H. The department of public safety shall complete all of the required qualification checks within sixty days after receipt of the application and shall issue a permit within fifteen working days after completing the qualification checks if the applicant meets all of the conditions specified in subsection E of this section.  If a permit is denied, the department of public safety shall notify the applicant in writing within fifteen working days after the completion of all of the required qualification checks and shall state the reasons why the application was denied.  On receipt of the notification of the denial, the applicant has twenty days to submit any additional documentation to the department.  On receipt of the additional documentation, the department shall reconsider its decision and inform the applicant within twenty days of the result of the reconsideration. If denied, the applicant shall be informed that the applicant may request a hearing pursuant to title 41, chapter 6, article 10.  For the purposes of this subsection, "receipt of the application" means the first day that the department has physical control of the application and that is presumed to be on the date of delivery as evidenced by proof of delivery by the United States postal service or a written receipt, which shall be provided by the department on request of the applicant.

I. On issuance, a permit is valid for five years, except a permit that is held by a member of the United States armed forces, including a member of the Arizona national guard or a member of the reserves of any military establishment of the United States, who is on federal active duty and who is deployed overseas shall be extended until ninety days after the end of the member's overseas deployment.

J. The department of public safety shall maintain a computerized permit record system that is accessible to criminal justice agencies and courts for the purpose of confirming the permit status of any person who is before the court for sentencing, subject to an order of protection or contacted by a law enforcement officer and who claims to hold a valid permit issued by this state.  This information and any other records that are maintained regarding applicants, permit holders or instructors shall not be available to any other person or entity except on an order from a state or federal court. A criminal justice agency or court shall not use the computerized permit record system to conduct inquiries on whether a person is a concealed weapons permit holder unless the court is sentencing the person or issuing an order of protection against the person or the criminal justice agency has reasonable suspicion to believe the person is carrying a concealed weapon and the person is subject to a lawful criminal investigation, arrest, detention or an investigatory stop.

K. A permit issued pursuant to this section is renewable every five years.  Before a permit may be renewed, a criminal history records check shall be conducted pursuant to section 41-1750 within sixty days after receipt of the application for renewal. For the purposes of permit renewal, the permit holder is not required to submit additional fingerprints.

L. Applications for renewal shall be accompanied by a fee determined by the director of the department of public safety.

M. The department of public safety shall suspend or revoke a permit issued under this section if the permit holder becomes ineligible pursuant to subsection E of this section.  The department of public safety shall notify the permit holder in writing within fifteen working days after the revocation or suspension and shall state the reasons for the revocation or suspension.

N. An applicant shall demonstrate competence with a firearm through any of the following:

1. Completion of any firearms safety or training course or class that is available to the general public, that is offered by a law enforcement agency, a junior college, a college or a private or public institution, academy, organization or firearms training school and that is approved by the department of public safety or that uses instructors who are certified by the national rifle association.

2. Completion of any hunter education or hunter safety course approved by the Arizona game and fish department or a similar agency of another state.

3. Completion of any national rifle association firearms safety or training course.

4. Completion of any law enforcement firearms safety or training course or class that is offered for security guards, investigators, special deputies or other divisions or subdivisions of law enforcement or security enforcement and that is approved by the department of public safety.

5. Evidence of current military service or proof of honorable discharge or general discharge under honorable conditions from the United States armed forces.

6. A valid current or expired concealed weapon, firearm or handgun permit or license that is issued by another state or a political subdivision of another state and that has a training or testing requirement for initial issuance.

7. Completion of any governmental police agency firearms training course and qualification to carry a firearm in the course of normal police duties.

8. Completion of any other firearms safety or training course or class that is conducted by a department of public safety approved or national rifle association certified firearms instructor.

O. The department of public safety shall maintain information comparing the number of permits requested, the number of permits issued and the number of permits denied. The department shall annually report this information electronically to the governor and the legislature.

P. The director of the department of public safety shall adopt rules for the purpose of implementing and administering this section including fees relating to permits that are issued pursuant to this section.

Q. This state and any political subdivision of this state shall recognize a concealed weapon, firearm or handgun permit or license that is issued by another state or a political subdivision of another state if both:

1. The permit or license is recognized as valid in the issuing state.

2. The permit or license holder is all of the following:

(a) Legally present in this state.

(b) Not legally prohibited from possessing a firearm in this state.

R. For the purpose of establishing mutual permit or license recognition with other states, the department of public safety shall enter into a written agreement if another state requires a written agreement.  The department of public safety shall submit an electronic report to the governor and the legislature each year that includes any changes that were made in the previous year to a written agreement with another state.

S. Notwithstanding the provisions of this section, a person with a concealed weapons permit from another state may not carry a concealed weapon in this state if the person is under twenty-one years of age or is under indictment for, or has been convicted of, a felony offense in any jurisdiction, unless that conviction is expunged, set aside or vacated or the person's rights have been restored and the person is currently not a prohibited possessor under state or federal law.

T. The department of public safety may issue certificates of firearms proficiency according to the Arizona peace officer standards and training board firearms qualification for the purposes of implementing the law enforcement officers safety act of 2004 (P.L. 108-277; 118 Stat. 865; 18 United States Code sections 926B and 926C). A law enforcement or prosecutorial agency shall issue to a qualified retired law enforcement officer who has honorably retired a photographic identification that states that the officer has honorably retired from the agency.  A person who was a municipal, county or state prosecutor is deemed to meet the qualifications of 18 United States Code section 926C(c)(2).  The chief law enforcement officer shall determine whether an officer has honorably retired and the determination is not subject to review.  A law enforcement or prosecutorial agency has no obligation to revoke, alter or modify the honorable discharge photographic identification based on conduct that the agency becomes aware of or that occurs after the officer has separated from the agency.  For the purposes of this subsection, "qualified retired law enforcement officer" has the same meaning prescribed in 18 United States Code section 926C.

U. The initial and renewal application fees collected pursuant to this section shall be deposited, pursuant to sections 35-146 and 35-147, in the concealed weapons permit fund established by section 41-1722. END_STATUTE

Sec. 3. Section 13-3602, Arizona Revised Statutes, is amended to read:

START_STATUTE13-3602. Order of protection; procedure; contents; arrest for violation; penalty; protection order from another jurisdiction; definition

A. A person may file a verified petition, as in civil actions, with a magistrate, justice of the peace or superior court judge for an order of protection for the purpose of restraining a person from committing an act included in domestic violence.  If the person is a minor, the parent, legal guardian or person who has legal custody of the minor shall file the petition unless the court determines otherwise.  The petition shall name the parent, guardian or custodian as the plaintiff and the minor is a specifically designated person for the purposes of subsection G of this section. If a person is either temporarily or permanently unable to request an order, a third party may request an order of protection on behalf of the plaintiff.  After the request, the judicial officer shall determine if the third party is an appropriate requesting party for the plaintiff.  For the purposes of this section, notwithstanding the location of the plaintiff or defendant, any court in this state may issue or enforce an order of protection.

B. An order of protection shall not be granted:

1. Unless the party who requests the order files a written verified petition for an order.

2. Against a person who is less than twelve years of age unless the order is granted by the juvenile division of the superior court.

3. Against more than one defendant.

C. The petition shall state the:

1. Name of the plaintiff.  The plaintiff's address and contact information shall be disclosed to the court for purposes of service and notification. The address and contact information shall not be listed on the petition. Whether or not the court issues an order of protection, the plaintiff's address and contact information shall be maintained in a separate document or automated database and is not subject to release or disclosure by the court or any form of public access except as ordered by the court.

2. Name and address, if known, of the defendant.

3. Specific statement, including dates, of the domestic violence alleged.

4. Relationship between the parties pursuant to section 13-3601, subsection A and whether there is pending between the parties an action for maternity or paternity, annulment, legal separation or dissolution of marriage.

5. Name of the court in which any prior or pending proceeding or order was sought or issued concerning the conduct that is sought to be restrained.

6. Desired relief.

D. A fee shall not be charged for filing a petition under this section or for service of process. Each court shall provide, without charge, forms for purposes of this section for assisting parties without counsel. The court shall make reasonable efforts to provide the appropriate information to both parties on emergency and counseling services that are available in the local area.

E. The court shall review the petition, any other pleadings on file and any evidence offered by the plaintiff, including any evidence of harassment by electronic contact or communication, to determine whether the orders requested should issue without further hearing.  The court shall issue an order of protection under subsection G of this section if the court determines that there is reasonable cause to believe any of the following:

1. The defendant may commit an act of domestic violence.

2. The defendant has committed an act of domestic violence within the past year or within a longer period of time if the court finds that good cause exists to consider a longer period.

F. For the purposes of determining the period of time under subsection E, paragraph 2 of this section, any time that the defendant has been incarcerated or out of this state shall not be counted.  If the court denies the requested relief, it may schedule a further hearing within ten days, with reasonable notice to the defendant.

G. If a court issues an order of protection, the court may do any of the following:

1. Enjoin the defendant from committing a violation of one or more of the offenses included in domestic violence.

2. Grant one party the use and exclusive possession of the parties' residence on a showing that there is reasonable cause to believe that physical harm may otherwise result.  If the other party is accompanied by a law enforcement officer, the other party may return to the residence on one occasion to retrieve belongings.  A law enforcement officer is not liable for any act or omission in the good faith exercise of the officer's duties under this paragraph.  While the order of protection is in effect, if a party was granted the use and exclusive possession of the parties' residence and subsequently moves out of the house, the party must file a notice in writing with the court within five days after moving out of the residence.  After receiving the notification from the plaintiff, the court shall provide notice to the defendant that the plaintiff has moved out of the residence and of the defendant's right to request a hearing pursuant to subsection L of this section.

3. Restrain the defendant from contacting the plaintiff or other specifically designated persons and from coming near the residence, place of employment or school of the plaintiff or other specifically designated locations or persons on a showing that there is reasonable cause to believe that physical harm may otherwise result.

4. If the court finds that the defendant is a credible threat to the physical safety of the plaintiff or other specifically designated persons, prohibit the defendant from possessing or purchasing a firearm for the duration of the order.  If the court prohibits the defendant from possessing a firearm, the court shall also order the defendant to transfer any firearm owned or possessed by the defendant immediately after service of the order to the appropriate law enforcement agency for the duration of the order.  If the defendant does not immediately transfer the firearm, the defendant shall transfer the firearm within twenty-four hours after service of the order.  The court shall determine if the defendant possesses a concealed weapons permit issued pursuant to section 13-3112 and shall revoke the permit.  The court shall order the defendant, within three business days after being served with the order of protection, to surrender the permit to the department of public safety.  If the defendant does not voluntarily surrender the concealed weapons permit, the department of public safety shall locate the defendant and seize the permit.

5. If the order was issued after notice and a hearing at which the defendant had an opportunity to participate, require the defendant to complete a domestic violence offender treatment program that is provided by a facility approved by the department of health services or a probation department or any other program deemed appropriate by the court.

6. Grant relief that is necessary for the protection of the alleged victim and other specifically designated persons and that is proper under the circumstances.

7. Grant the plaintiff the exclusive care, custody or control of any animal that is owned, possessed, leased, kept or held by the plaintiff, the defendant or a minor child residing in the residence or household of the plaintiff or the defendant, and order the defendant to stay away from the animal and forbid the defendant from taking, transferring, encumbering, concealing, committing an act of cruelty or neglect in violation of section 13-2910 or otherwise disposing of the animal.

H. The court shall not grant a mutual order of protection. If opposing parties separately file verified petitions for an order of protection, the courts after consultation between the judges involved may consolidate the petitions of the opposing parties for hearing.  This does not prohibit a court from issuing cross orders of protection.

I. After granting an order of protection, the court shall provide the order to a law enforcement agency or a constable as set forth in subsection J of this section for service or to an entity that is authorized in subsection K of this section to serve process.  The agency or entity serving the order shall provide confirmation of service to the plaintiff as soon as practicable.  If service of an order cannot be completed within fifteen days after the agency or entity receives the order, the agency or entity that is attempting service shall notify the plaintiff and continue to attempt service. This notification may be completed by a victim notification system, if available.

J. If the order of protection is provided to a law enforcement agency or a constable, service of an order of protection is as follows:

1. For each order of protection that is issued by a municipal court, if the defendant can be served within that city or town, the order shall be served by the law enforcement agency of that city or town. If the order can be served in another city or town, the order shall be served by the law enforcement agency of that city or town.  If the order cannot be served within a city or town, the order shall be served by the sheriff or constable of the county in which the defendant can be served.

2. For each order of protection that is issued by a justice of the peace, the order of protection shall be served by the sheriff or constable of the county in which the defendant can be served or by a municipal law enforcement agency.

3. For each order of protection that is issued by a superior court judge or commissioner, the order of protection shall by served by the sheriff or constable of the county where the defendant can be served.

K. In addition to persons authorized to serve process pursuant to rule 4(d) of the Arizona rules of civil procedure, a peace officer or a correctional officer as defined in section 41-1661 who is acting in the officer's official capacity may serve an order of protection that is issued pursuant to this section.  Service of the order of protection has priority over other service of process that does not involve an immediate threat to the safety of a person.

L. At any time during the period during which the order is in effect, a party who is under an order of protection or who is restrained from contacting the other party is entitled to one hearing on written request.  No fee may be charged for requesting a hearing.  A hearing that is requested by a party who is under an order of protection or who is restrained from contacting the other party shall be held within ten days from the date requested unless the court finds good cause to continue the hearing.  If exclusive use of the home is awarded, the hearing shall be held within five days from the date requested. The hearing shall be held at the earliest possible time.  An ex parte order that is issued under this section shall state on its face that the defendant is entitled to a hearing on written request and shall include the name and address of the judicial office where the request may be filed.  After the hearing, the court may modify, quash or continue the order.  If exclusive use of the home is awarded to the party, the court, on written request of a party, may hold additional hearings at any time if there is a change in circumstances related to the primary residence.

M. The order shall include the following statement:

Warning

This is an official court order. If you disobey this order, you will be subject to arrest and prosecution for the crime of interfering with judicial proceedings and any other crime you may have committed in disobeying this order.

N. An order of protection that is not served on the defendant within one year after the date that the order is issued expires. An order is effective on the defendant on service of a copy of the order and petition.  An order expires one year after service on the defendant. A modified order is effective on service and expires one year after service of the initial order and petition.

O. A supplemental information form that is used by the court or a law enforcement agency solely for the purposes of service of process on the defendant and that contains information provided by the plaintiff is confidential.

P. Each affidavit, declaration, acceptance or return of service shall be filed as soon as practicable but not later than seventy-two hours, excluding weekends and holidays, with the clerk of the issuing court or as otherwise required by court rule. This filing shall be completed in person, electronically or by fax. Within twenty-four hours after the affidavit, declaration, acceptance or return of service has been filed, excluding weekends and holidays, the court from which the order or any modified order was issued shall register the order with the national crime information center. The supreme court shall maintain a central repository for orders of protection so that the existence and validity of the orders can be easily verified.  The effectiveness of an order does not depend on its registration, and for enforcement purposes pursuant to section 13-2810, a copy of an order of the court, whether or not registered, is presumed to be a valid existing order of the court for a period of one year from the date of service of the order on the defendant.

Q. A peace officer, with or without a warrant, may arrest a person if the peace officer has probable cause to believe that the person has violated section 13-2810 by disobeying or resisting an order that is issued in any jurisdiction in this state pursuant to this section, whether or not such violation occurred in the presence of the officer.  Criminal violations of an order issued pursuant to this section shall be referred to an appropriate law enforcement agency. The provisions for release under section 13-3883, subsection A, paragraph 4 and section 13-3903 do not apply to an arrest made pursuant to this section.  For the purposes of this section, any court in this state has jurisdiction to enforce a valid order of protection that is issued in this state and that has been violated in any jurisdiction in this state.

R. A person who is arrested pursuant to subsection Q of this section may be released from custody in accordance with the Arizona rules of criminal procedure or any other applicable statute. An order for release, with or without an appearance bond, shall include pretrial release conditions that are necessary to provide for the protection of the alleged victim and other specifically designated persons and may provide for any other additional conditions that the court deems appropriate, including participation in any counseling programs available to the defendant. The agency with custody of the defendant shall make reasonable efforts to contact the victim and other specifically designated persons in the order of protection, if known to the custodial agency, who requested notification immediately on release of the arrested person from custody.

S. The remedies provided in this section for enforcement of the orders of the court are in addition to any other civil and criminal remedies available. The superior court shall have exclusive jurisdiction to issue orders of protection in all cases if it appears from the petition that an action for maternity or paternity, annulment, legal separation or dissolution of marriage is pending between the parties.  A municipal court or justice court shall not issue an order of protection if it appears from the petition that an action for maternity or paternity, annulment, legal separation or dissolution of marriage is pending between the parties. After issuance of an order of protection, if the municipal court or justice court determines that an action for maternity or paternity, annulment, legal separation or dissolution of marriage is pending between the parties, the municipal court or justice court shall stop further proceedings in the action and forward all papers, together with a certified copy of docket entries or any other record in the action, to the superior court where they shall be docketed in the pending superior court action and shall proceed as though the petition for an order of protection had been originally brought in the superior court. Notwithstanding any other law and unless prohibited by an order of the superior court, a municipal court or justice court may hold a hearing on all matters relating to its ex parte order of protection if the hearing was requested before receiving written notice of the pending superior court action. No order of protection shall be invalid or determined to be ineffective merely because it was issued by a lower court at a time when an action for maternity or paternity, annulment, legal separation or dissolution of marriage was pending in a higher court. After a hearing with notice to the affected party, the court may enter an order requiring any party to pay the costs of the action, including reasonable attorney fees, if any. An order that is entered by a justice court or municipal court after a hearing pursuant to this section may be appealed to the superior court as provided in title 22, chapter 2, article 4, section 22-425, subsection B and the superior court rules of civil appellate procedure without regard to an amount in controversy. No fee may be charged to either party for filing an appeal.  For the purposes of this subsection, "pending" means, with respect to an action for annulment, legal separation or dissolution of marriage or for maternity or paternity, either that:

1. An action has been commenced but a final judgment, decree or order has not been entered.

2. A post-decree proceeding has been commenced but a judgment, decree or order finally determining the proceeding has not been entered.

T. A peace officer who makes an arrest pursuant to this section or section 13-3601 is not civilly or criminally liable for the arrest if the officer acts on probable cause and without malice.

U. A valid protection order that is related to domestic or family violence and that is issued by a court in another state, a court of a United States territory or a tribal court shall be accorded full faith and credit and shall be enforced as if it were issued in this state for as long as the order is effective in the issuing jurisdiction. For the purposes of this subsection:

1. A protection order includes any injunction or other order that is issued for the purpose of preventing violent or threatening acts or harassment against, contact or communication with or physical proximity to another person. A protection order includes temporary and final orders other than support or child custody orders that are issued by civil and criminal courts if the order is obtained by the filing of an independent action or is a pendente lite order in another proceeding.  The civil order shall be issued in response to a complaint, petition or motion that was filed by or on behalf of a person seeking protection.

2. A protection order is valid if the issuing court had jurisdiction over the parties and the matter under the laws of the issuing state, a United States territory or an Indian tribe and the person against whom the order was issued had reasonable notice and an opportunity to be heard.  If the order is issued ex parte, the notice and opportunity to be heard shall be provided within the time required by the laws of the issuing state, a United States territory or an Indian tribe and within a reasonable time after the order was issued.

3. A mutual protection order that is issued against both the party who filed a petition or a complaint or otherwise filed a written pleading for protection against abuse and the person against whom the filing was made is not entitled to full faith and credit if either:

(a) The person against whom an initial order was sought has not filed a cross or counter petition or other written pleading seeking a protection order.

(b) The issuing court failed to make specific findings supporting the entitlement of both parties to be granted a protection order.

4. A peace officer may presume the validity of and rely on a copy of a protection order that is issued by another state, a United States territory or an Indian tribe if the order was given to the officer by any source.  A peace officer may also rely on the statement of any person who is protected by the order that the order remains in effect. A peace officer who acts in good faith reliance on a protection order is not civilly or criminally liable for enforcing the protection order pursuant to this section.

V. For the purposes of this section, "victim notification system" means an automated system that may provide plaintiffs and crime victims with an automated notification regarding the person's case. END_STATUTE